BY DONALD R. WELBORN

The church of Jesus Christ is facing in this hour, perhaps as never before, one of the most tragic moral and spiritual illnesses known to man. That illness is the breakdown of the marriage relationship between husbands and wives, and its devastating consequences upon the family unit (the home). An additional problem so often associated with this tragedy was spoken of by the Lord Himself when He uttered those solemn words "and shall marry another, committed adultery" (Matt. 19:9). Does remarriage to "another" before the death of one's spouse constitute adultery in the sight of God? What is adultery? What is fornication? Are there any reasons given to people today, who are not under the law given by Moses, for divorce and remarriage? We shall search God's Word for the answers.

Marriage, from God's point of view, was to be a voluntary commitment of a man and a woman to each other in a responsible love relationship for a "lifetime." It was through this union that God purposed to "fill the earth" (Gen.1:26-28) with people who came from the man who was made in His own image. This union also was to be a beautiful type of the relationship of Christ, the heavenly Bridegroom, to the Church, His redeemed bride (Eph. 5:25-33). It is obvious, that love, the kind found in Ephesians 5:25 and Titus 2:4, was to be the underlying foundational ingredient for such a divinely ordained relationship. "Husbands, love your wives even as Christ also loved the Church and gave Himself for it" (Eph. 2:25). "The aged woman ....... may teach the young women to be sober, to love their husbands" (Titus. 2:3-4). That it was intended to last a lifetime is clear from Romans 7:1-3. It is there stated that a woman "is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband." It is equally clear from that text that, if "while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress." Paul's letter to the Corinthians states essentially the same thing but gives further advice about remarriage. "The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord. But she is happier if she so abide, after my judgment; and I think also that I have the Spirit of God" (I Cor. 7:39-40). The uniform lesson from Genesis through Revelation is that marriage from God's point of view, was to last until death and that he hates divorce. Malachi tells us that God (the Lord) hates putting away (Mal. 2:14-16).

It will be well to notice and remember that the law of marriage stated in Romans 7 and I Corinthians 7 begins with creation, not Christianity. God's intent should be crystal clear even to the casual reader of Holy Scripture that he never intended divorce or remarriage. When we go through each passage in the New Testament carefully, rightly dividing the Word, we will find no Scriptural grounds for divorce or remarriage in our present day.

We shall now investigate passages of New Testament Scriptures for proof of the aforementioned statements. In Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 the Lord states that fornication is the only reason for putting away a wife. "But I say unto you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causes her to commit adultery; and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committed adultery" (Mat. 5:32). "And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery; and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery" (Matt. 19:9). It will be well to remember that fornication (Greek Porneia) and adultery (Greek Moikeia) are not only two different words but mean two different things. According to Webster's New World Dictionary of the American Language, adultery is "sexual intercourse between a married person and another not the spouse." Fornication, however is "voluntary sexual intercourse between unmarried persons." Admittedly, these are English definitions. However in the New Testament God places both words in the same verse seven times (Matt. 5:32, 15:19, 19:9, Mark 7:21, I Cor. 6:9, Gal. 5:19, Heb.13:4) and thereby lets us know that they have different meanings. If the word fornication means both premarital and extramarital sexual activity, why then did God use both and not rather use the one, fornication (Greek Porneia) to cover both usages? Both words are similar in that they define unrighteous sexual intercourse but they are different in that they involve opposite grounds upon which the act is committed. The distinction is obvious. Also it must be remembered that Matthew had a special interest in writing to the Jews of his day, as God inspired him, and he alone records the exception, "fornication." This had to do with hard hearted Jews under the law.

A review of Deuteronomy 24:1-4 will show that only a man in Israel (not a woman) could write "a bill of divorcement." Then only if he had "found some uncleanness in her" (margin: matter of nakedness) could he do so and send her out of his house. The Lord in His commentary of that passage, lets us know that the one reason was fornication. In Matthew 5:17-18, Jesus makes it clear that He came not to destroy the law or the prophets, but to fulfill (or fill up to the fullness). Notice how he does that in Matthew 5:21-22, 27-28, 31-32, 33-37, 38-42, 43-48. He filled up to the fullness the scriptures that the Pharisees brought before him in Matthew 19:3-9. They wanted to know (from Duet. 24:1) if it was lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause. But He began His answer by going back to the beginning (Gen. 1-2) and not to the law of Moses (Deut 22-24). He interprets marriage for us in his answer. It was a man leaving his father and mother and cleaving to his wife that constituted marriage. It is at this point that He said (after the woman becomes his wife) they shall be one flesh. In solemn finality the Lord declares "what therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder." After leaving the father and mother and cleaving to his wife and becoming one flesh with her, God declares that the man and his wife are joined together by Himself. Such a statement is final and God gives no one the right to put it asunder (even Moses).

Using Genesis 1-2 and Deuteronomy 22-24, Mathew 1:18-25 and 19:3-9, we learn that the betrothal system was in effect during those days. Our present day "engagement" is different in that two people, when engaged, are not in fact "husband and wife". They are to refrain from sexual intercourse, which is a one-flesh union, until they become husband and wife. In Israel they were actually husband and wife when betrothed BUT did not become one flesh immediately through sexual union (note carefully Deut. 22:23-24 and Matthew 1:18-25). It would be well also to review Jacob's marriage to Rachel in this connection and see that she was committed to him for seven years (then later, seven additional days) before he became one flesh with her. He also stayed in her father's home (see Gen. 29: 1-30 and especially note verses 13-14 and 19).

The Lord had presented God's standard. One woman for one man for a lifetime. He also made it clear that God is immutable (Malachi 3:6) and had planned no change by referring to the "beginning" two different times (Matt. 19:4 and 8).

The Pharisees, however, were not satisfied with his reply and once more put him to the test, "Why then did Moses command to give a writing of divorcement and put her away?" Jesus made it clear that it was only because of the hardness of their hearts that Moses allowed (suffered) them to do so. Then only if fornication had been committed. Not adultery, as some are presently being taught, but fornication. If a woman had had sexual intercourse prior to betrothal and the husband discovered it during the betrothal, he could as a hard-hearted man, put her away (divorce her). That is the teaching of Deuteronomy 24:1 and the Lord's PERFECT commentary. However, if the woman had intercourse during the betrothal period with someone other than her husband, she was to be stoned to death, along with her paramour (Deut. 22:23-24). She was to have remained a virgin until the "wedding feast" and her husband was to have had her virginity. If someone other than her husband had a sexual relationship with her, such a relationship would have adulterated her marriage union. Death was the penalty not divorce. God demanded death for adultery under the law. The people of Jesus's day understood the law, at least that part, and put the question to him, "but what sayest thou?" (see John 8:3-5). He came not to destroy the law but to fulfill it. How beautifully he handled the situation. In pure grace He, the only One on earth who had power to forgive sins, forgave the woman of John 8:3-11. Blessed Savior! He did not deny or refute the law. He could not.

A woman as well as a man was to have been morally pure before marriage as well as during marriage. God does put a premium on morality. A case in Deuteronomy 22:13-21 shows that through the experience of sexual intercourse during the marriage relationship, a man discovered that his wife was not a virgin. If the marriage cloth (a cloth used during the marriage act containing evidence of virginity) could not be "found" she was stoned, not divorced. Surely by now it should be clear from Scripture that death was prescribed for adultery, not divorce as some modern day expositors would have us to believe.

The disciples understood the discussion of Matthew 19:3-9 sufficiently, so that they began to express doubt about the wisdom of marriage. Responsibility under the law was obviously different from Jewish traditions during Jesus' time and the disciples were very much aware of this through the Lord's comments. However, "in the house" is an expression found in Mark 10:10 where the meeting with the Pharisees appears to have ended and Jesus is once more alone with His disciples. They asked Him again of the same matter and He said that "whoever shall put away his wife, and marry another committeth adultery against her (Mark 10:11). No exception clause was declared. Why? Because they, the disciples, were going to enter into the age or dispensation of the grace of God and be set in the Church, which is Christ's body. They would be the first members (I Cor. 12-28). By that time, the law would have been nailed to the tree (Col. 2:14). We are not under law, but under grace (Romans 6:14).

The Lord shows a further distinction in His discourse "in the house" by giving the disciples a divine principle that was equally true for women as well as men. "And if a women shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery" (Mark 10:11). The same force, without any exception clause, is presented in Luke 16:18.

Thus it should be manifestly clear to any Bible student that divorce was only allowed for men in Israel (see Duet. 22:13-29 and 24:1-4, Matt. 5:31-32 and 19:3-9). Then, only during betrothal before the one flesh union (Duet. 24:1-4 and Matt. 19:3-9). It must be remembered that the Lord Himself declared "For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder" (Matt. 19:5-6). Divorce was allowed to men who were hardhearted (Matt. 19:3-9 and Mark 10:2-9). Men who placed more emphasis on the physical than love and the spiritual. Men who did not appreciate God's intended plan. Men who were determined to live according to the flesh.

A careful study of the scripture passages presented in this writing will be imperative in understanding God's path for us today. Neither divorce nor remarriage after divorce is Scriptural in His sight. With prayer for those who belong to Himself, this writing is sent forth that we might see the truth on this very important subject and be willing to walk therein to the glory of God.

Donald R. Welborn

ADDENDUM

The word BONDAGE in I Cor. 7:15 is a word that many believers and expositors have thought meant "the bond of marriage." Such is a great mistake. In the first place, God never intended marriage to be a BONDAGE (slavery or servitude) but rather a beautiful relationship that was to picture the Lord Jesus and his redeemed, bride, the assembly. Second, the word BOUND in Romans 7:2 translates a different Greek word than the one in I Cor. 7:15 translated BONDAGE. The Greek word that was translated bondage in I Cor. 7:15 is used by the Holy Spirit only eight times in the Greek New Testament. It never means marriage. It is used as servitude or slavery. God requires married people to serve the needs of their spouses. See I Cor. 7:1-5. Also note that married couples are bound in marriage UNTIL DEATH (Rom. 7:2-3, and I Cor. 7:39).

For a good understanding of the Greek word DOULOO see Acts. 7:6, Rom. 6:18, and 22, I Cor. 7:15, 9:19, Gal. 4:3, Titus 2:3, 2 Peter 2:19.

Seeing that no verse ever contradicts another in God's word, we might close this brief study with the truth stated in Rom. 7:2 that marriage is until death, not divorce. Whatever is stated in any other verse from God's word, it will not contradict this clear statement. The same is true in I Cor. 7:39.

DRW